The U.S. declared itself to be neutral during the war, but allowed U.S. businesses to loan money and sell arms to one side and not the other. In your opinion, 1) Was this true neutrality, and 2) Did this justify German attacks on U.S. shipping?

1. The United States declared neutrality during World War I, aiming to avoid direct involvement in the conflict. However, the reality of this neutrality was debated due to actions such as loans and arms sales to the Allied Powers. While these actions technically favored one side, the U.S. did not officially align with any belligerent nation.

2. As for justifying German attacks on U.S. shipping, it's a contentious point. The Germans engaged in unrestricted submarine warfare, sinking neutral and enemy vessels alike. The sinking of American ships, such as the Lusitania in 1915, led to American casualties, causing tension between the U.S. and Germany. Some argued that the U.S. involvement in economic support for the Allies made it a legitimate target in the eyes of Germany, while others viewed these attacks as a violation of international laws governing neutral parties.

Ultimately, whether these actions justified German attacks is subjective and dependent on differing perspectives regarding the moral and legal implications of targeting neutral shipping during wartime.